November 24th, 2009
If an ancestor was listed as not being able to read and write, does this mean they were very poor? Were people self taught back then?
Image taken on 2007-03-08 00:54:29 by UrvishJ. Image Source. (Used with permission)
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2 Comments
I dont think there was much self teaching. I think they were poor.
Schools were not that plentiful then, most born after 1850 got some form of schooling, even then some were self-taught in later years or by friends who knew how. I have an ancestor born in 1851 who told his daughter he schooled himself and learned in his later years from a poet who patiently taught him poetry and brought him books as his desire to learn was deep. He knew how to write his name is all I know so probably had basics in reading down, too from somebody….likely a few years of school at some point. His mother was illiterate, so it was not from her.
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